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Browse: Home / KNOWLEDGE / Science

How do Kepler’s first 2 laws directly contradict the teachings Aristotle concerning the motion of the planets?

xD: How do Kepler’s first 2 laws directly contradict the teachings Aristotle concerning the motion of the planets?
For whom did Johannes Kepler work?
From where did Kepler get his data to create his Laws of Planetary Motion?
How do Kepler’s first 2 laws directly contradict the teachings Aristotle concerning the motion of the planets?
What is Kepler’s Third Law, how is it different from the first two laws and how is it similar to the Second Law?
What does it tell us about how fast Earth is moving compared to Venus or Mars?
What does it tell us about Mercury’s orbital speed, compared to that of the other planets?

Answers and Views:

Answer by oklatonola
Denmark

Mostly form Tycho Brahe’s data from hours of observations of Mars plus Kepler’s own observations
of Mars. Kepler was Brahe’s protege, Brahe was jealous and arrogant enough not to give Kepler
permission to use his data while he was alive, so Kepler bided his time until after Brahe was
dead, properly mourned and buried in sacred ground.

Kepler’s first two laws contradict Aristotle’s because Aristotle ASSUME that planetary orbits are circular. Kepler’s second law depends on planetary orbits being elliptical.

Kepler’s 3rd law (I’m only going to give the simplified form of the third law equation because it’s easier to understand more quickly), P^2 ~ a^3 (the tilda means “is proportional to” in mathematical symbols), because it works when orbits have very low eccentricities or are really circular. The third law only works because of the second law, so the third law is more dependent on the second law than the first law.

The third law accounts for and explains of Earth’s slower orbital speeds compared to Mercury’s and Venus’ faster orbital speeds. All that Kepler’s third law does not account for is the precession of Mercury’s and Venus’ orbits over long periods of time. That wasn’t explained until Einstein came up with the Theory, now Law of General Relativity in 1905.

Answer by Banker John
Oklatono’s answer is correct. I would only add two points. Aristotle believed that the Earth was the center of the solar system and celestial bodies revolved around the Earth. Secondly, Aristotle believed that the angular velocity of a given sphere was constant for that sphere. He concluded so because he believed that orbits were circular. Kepler’s Second Law states that the line joining the Sun sweeps the same area in equal times. This means, given Kepler’s First Law, that planets orbit quickest when they are nearest the Sun. Since orbits are elliptical (some more than others), this disproves Aristotle’s belief that velocity was constant for any given sphere.

Answer by popovoleg70
These questions are not for disputes and not can be scientifically.But by phylosophy only in best case.It is for very advanced scientist as well. Or it can lead to contradicting today’s polytics and school but not with Kepler,Aristotle and science itself even.For what we do attempt to avoid here.Concentrate on up to day science better.

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