How is denying women the right to vote is like taxation without representation?

takingbacksunday: How is denying women the right to vote is like taxation without representation?
Jeannette Rankin made this claim for she was a big advocate of woman’s suffrage and the first female member of the House.

How is the claim “taxation without representation” valid in denying women the right to vote?

Answers and Views:

Answer by Think Outside the Ballot Box
Because laws affect you even if you don’t vote.
That’s why there must be universal suffrage.

Answer by Future College Student
Women have to pay taxes but no one can hear their wishes. It’s called disenfranchisement.

Answer by Republican devil John Boehner
Because they need to get back into the kitchen.

Answer by jaker
Seems like it could be that if women are required to pay tax they must be allowed to vote. Am I missing something?

Answer by Whig Party
Women have to pay taxes too. If they pay taxes then they deserve a voice. Makes sense to me. And I am against femiNAZIs completely.

Answer by Life Puzzler
Most of the fear tactics used against women suffrage basically referred to the potential horrors of their absence from the kitchen.

Answer by DebbieP
If you pay taxes, yet aren’t allowed to vote, you have no representation in congress.

Answer by Peace through blinding force
It was a distraction.
Most States set criteria for voting that involved having a tangible stake. Sometimes they used a proxy measure. Since at the time almost no women held property nor any other actual stake in governance it was common to presumptively disenfranchise women unless they could show title to property.
The advance of fascism (we didn’t call it that, then) required extending franchise to NON-stakeholders to enhance class-warfare so rather than disallowing presumptive disenfranchisement and extending the vote to stakeholders regardless of gender, the day’s fascists demanded women get to vote EVEN IF they had absolutely no separate stake.

Answer by namenotpickedyet
Well if Women can’t own any property than they don’t pay any taxes. I could be wrong but taxation would only apply to women if they did not have a man paying for them. So i would imagine this would only apply where women had the right to own property. You are speaking historically right?

Fathers would not let their daughters leave the house unless they married them off with their approval or they went to a nunery or something like that. And if the Father was dead than it would be the Uncle or Brother that would give them away to the Husband. Having a Woman living alone & taking care of the finances & things like taxes was not proper. Those were things that the Adult Males did. Not the Females.

Answer by mamadixie
Because women still had to pay taxes even though they were not allowed to vote for a representative.